📚 StudyHub

🔬 Biology  ·  Class 11  ·  NEET

Cell: The Unit of Life — Practice Questions with Answers

60 free MCQs on Cell: The Unit of Life with worked answers and explanations. Cell theory, prokaryotic vs eukaryotic cells, organelles and their functions. Foundation of all biology.

Take the timed Cell: The Unit of Life quiz →

Below are 60 practice questions on Cell: The Unit of Life, sorted Easy → Hard. Tap “Show answer & explanation” under any question to check yourself. Want the full theory first? Read the Cell: The Unit of Life notes.

Labeled diagram of an animal cell showing nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and other organelles

Animal cell structure with major organelles labeled. Image: LadyofHats (Mariana Ruiz), Public Domain, via Wikimedia Commons.

Easy — 20 questions

Q1.

Who proposed the cell theory?

  • A Hooke and Darwin
  • B Schleiden and Schwann
  • C Mendel and Morgan
  • D Watson and Crick
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Schleiden and Schwann

Why: Matthias Schleiden (plants) and Theodor Schwann (animals) proposed cell theory in 1838-1839.

Q2.

The powerhouse of the cell is the:

  • A Nucleus
  • B Ribosome
  • C Mitochondria
  • D Golgi apparatus
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Mitochondria

Why: Mitochondria produce ATP through aerobic respiration. They are called the powerhouse of the cell.

Q3.

Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis?

  • A Mitochondria
  • B Golgi body
  • C Ribosome
  • D Lysosome
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Ribosome

Why: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis (translation) in all cells.

Q4.

Cell wall in plant cells is made of:

  • A Protein
  • B Chitin
  • C Cellulose
  • D Peptidoglycan
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Cellulose

Why: Plant cell walls are made of cellulose (polysaccharide). Fungal cell walls contain chitin; bacterial walls have peptidoglycan.

Q5.

Which organelle is called the post office of the cell?

  • A Ribosome
  • B Nucleus
  • C Golgi apparatus
  • D Mitochondria
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Golgi apparatus

Why: Golgi apparatus modifies, packages, and ships proteins to their destinations: like a post office.

Q6.

The fluid mosaic model describes the structure of:

  • A Cell wall
  • B Plasma membrane
  • C Nuclear membrane
  • D Endoplasmic reticulum
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Plasma membrane

Why: Singer and Nicolson's fluid mosaic model (1972): plasma membrane is a fluid phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

Q7.

Lysosomes are called the suicide bags because:

  • A They engulf and destroy invading bacteria through phagocytic digestion
  • B Their enzymes can destroy the cell if released
  • C They store a small circular loop of extranuclear genetic material
  • D They synthesize and secrete cytotoxic compounds into the cytoplasm
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Their enzymes can destroy the cell if released

Why: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes. If these enzymes leak, they can digest the cell itself: hence suicide bags.

Q8.

Which type of cell lacks a membrane-bound nucleus?

  • A Eukaryotic
  • B Plant cell
  • C Prokaryotic
  • D Animal cell
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Prokaryotic

Why: Prokaryotic cells (bacteria, archaea) have no membrane-bound nucleus. Their DNA is in the nucleoid region.

Q9.

Chloroplasts are found in:

  • A All cells, including bacteria and fungi
  • B Only animal cells and never in plants
  • C Only plant cells and algae
  • D Only certain photosynthetic bacteria species
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Only plant cells and algae

Why: Chloroplasts are present in plant cells and algae. They are the sites of photosynthesis.

Q10.

The nucleus contains:

  • A RNA mainly
  • B DNA and proteins
  • C Lipids mainly
  • D ATP
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. DNA and proteins

Why: The nucleus contains DNA (genetic material) along with proteins (histones) and RNA. It is the control center of the cell.

Q11.

Osmosis is the movement of water from:

  • A Regions of higher solute concentration toward regions of lower solute concentration
  • B Lower solute to higher solute concentration (i.e., across semi-permeable membrane)
  • C Any arbitrary region of the cell to any neighboring region without restriction
  • D Regions of high hydrostatic pressure to regions of low pressure exclusively
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Lower solute to higher solute concentration (i.e., across semi-permeable membrane)

Why: Osmosis: water moves from low solute concentration (high water potential) to high solute concentration (low water potential) through a semi-permeable membrane.

Q12.

Which organelle contains digestive enzymes in animal cells?

  • A Ribosome
  • B Lysosome
  • C Golgi apparatus
  • D Vacuole
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Lysosome

Why: Lysosomes contain hydrolytic (digestive) enzymes. They digest worn-out organelles and foreign particles.

Q13.

The endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached is called:

  • A Smooth ER
  • B Rough ER
  • C Golgi ER
  • D Nuclear ER
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Rough ER

Why: Rough ER has ribosomes on its surface. It is involved in synthesis and processing of secretory proteins.

Q14.

Plasmolysis occurs when a plant cell is placed in:

  • A Hypotonic solution
  • B Isotonic solution
  • C Hypertonic solution
  • D Distilled water
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Hypertonic solution

Why: In a hypertonic solution, water leaves the cell by osmosis. The cell membrane shrinks away from wall: this is plasmolysis.

Q15.

The basic unit of life is:

  • A Atom
  • B Molecule
  • C Cell
  • D Tissue
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Cell

Why: The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms (Cell Theory).

Q16.

ATP is synthesized mainly in the:

  • A Nucleus
  • B Ribosome
  • C Mitochondria
  • D Endoplasmic reticulum
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Mitochondria

Why: The majority of ATP is produced in mitochondria during aerobic respiration (oxidative phosphorylation).

Q17.

Which of these organelles is NOT found in animal cells?

  • A Mitochondria
  • B Ribosome
  • C Chloroplast
  • D Golgi body
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Chloroplast

Why: Chloroplasts are only in plant cells and algae. Animal cells lack chloroplasts.

Q18.

The nuclear membrane is present in:

  • A Prokaryotes only
  • B Eukaryotes only
  • C Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
  • D Neither
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Eukaryotes only

Why: Nuclear membrane (nuclear envelope) is a defining feature of eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotes have no such membrane.

Q19.

Ribosomes in prokaryotes are:

  • A 80S
  • B 70S
  • C 60S
  • D 40S
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. 70S

Why: Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S (50S + 30S subunits). Eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are 80S.

Q20.

Cell membrane is primarily made of:

  • A Cellulose
  • B Phospholipids
  • C Proteins only
  • D Starch
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Phospholipids

Why: The cell membrane is a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins (fluid mosaic model).

Medium — 20 questions

Q21.

Which theory best explains the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts?

  • A Cell theory
  • B Endosymbiont theory
  • C Germ theory
  • D Fluid mosaic model
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Endosymbiont theory

Why: Endosymbiont theory (Lynn Margulis): mitochondria and chloroplasts were once free-living prokaryotes engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells.

Q22.

The process by which cells engulf foreign particles is called:

  • A Pinocytosis
  • B Exocytosis
  • C Phagocytosis
  • D Osmosis
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Phagocytosis

Why: Phagocytosis: cell engulfs solid particles (eat cell). Pinocytosis: cell engulfs liquid droplets (drink cell). Both are endocytosis.

Q23.

Centrioles are involved in:

  • A Translating mRNA into polypeptide chains at the ribosome
  • B Formation of spindle fibers in cell division
  • C Capturing light energy to drive carbon fixation reactions
  • D Assembling fatty acid chains into membrane phospholipids
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Formation of spindle fibers in cell division

Why: Centrioles (in animal cells) form asters and organize the spindle apparatus during cell division.

Q24.

The nucleolus is responsible for:

  • A Unwinding and duplicating the chromosomal DNA double helix
  • B Translating mRNA transcripts into completed polypeptide chains
  • C rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly
  • D Coordinating chromosome segregation during mitotic division
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly

Why: The nucleolus synthesizes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembles ribosome subunits.

Q25.

Active transport requires:

  • A A concentration gradient mainly
  • B No energy
  • C ATP (energy) and carrier proteins
  • D Mainly a semi-permeable membrane
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. ATP (energy) and carrier proteins

Why: Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient using ATP energy and specific carrier proteins.

Q26.

Which organelle is the site of lipid synthesis?

  • A Rough ER
  • B Smooth ER
  • C Golgi apparatus
  • D Ribosome
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Smooth ER

Why: Smooth ER (no ribosomes) is the site of lipid and cholesterol synthesis, and also involved in detoxification.

Q27.

Turgor pressure in plant cells is generated by:

  • A Active transport of ions across the plasma membrane
  • B Entry of water into vacuole by osmosis
  • C Cell wall rigidity resisting outward expansion
  • D ATP hydrolysis powering membrane pumps
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Entry of water into vacuole by osmosis

Why: Water enters the vacuole by osmosis, pushing the cell membrane against the rigid cell wall. This creates turgor pressure.

Q28.

Na+/K+ pump is an example of:

  • A Passive transport
  • B Active transport (primary)
  • C Simple diffusion
  • D Facilitated diffusion
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Active transport (primary)

Why: The Na+/K+ ATPase pump transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per ATP, against concentration gradients: primary active transport.

Q29.

Peroxisomes function in:

  • A Generating ATP through oxidative phosphorylation across an inner membrane
  • B Assembling amino acids into polypeptides at membrane-bound ribosomes
  • C Breaking down hydrogen peroxide (catalase enzyme)
  • D Packaging and modifying lipids for export via the Golgi apparatus
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Breaking down hydrogen peroxide (catalase enzyme)

Why: Peroxisomes contain catalase enzyme that converts toxic H2O2 to water and oxygen.

Q30.

The unit membrane model proposes that all membranes have a:

  • A Single phospholipid layer
  • B Protein-lipid-protein trilayer
  • C Fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins
  • D Only protein layer
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins

Why: Robertson's unit membrane model proposed a protein-lipid-protein sandwich structure. Modern understanding is the fluid mosaic model.

Q31.

Microtubules are made of the protein:

  • A Actin
  • B Tubulin
  • C Myosin
  • D Collagen
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Tubulin

Why: Microtubules are hollow tubes made of alpha and beta tubulin protein subunits. They form the cytoskeleton and spindle fibers.

Q32.

Plasmodesmata are:

  • A Pores in plant cell wall connecting adjacent cells
  • B Pores in nuclear membrane regulating mRNA export to the cytoplasm
  • C Gap junction channels formed in the membranes of adjacent animal cells
  • D Membrane bridges linking mitochondria for direct exchange of matrix contents
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A. Pores in plant cell wall connecting adjacent cells

Why: Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic channels through plant cell walls that connect neighboring cells for communication and transport.

Q33.

The Fluid Mosaic Model was proposed by:

  • A Hooke
  • B Watson and Crick
  • C Singer and Nicolson
  • D Schleiden and Schwann
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Singer and Nicolson

Why: Singer and Nicolson (1972) proposed the Fluid Mosaic Model for cell membrane structure.

Q34.

Tonoplast is the membrane surrounding the:

  • A Nucleus
  • B Vacuole
  • C Chloroplast
  • D Mitochondria
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Vacuole

Why: Tonoplast is the membrane that surrounds the central vacuole in plant cells.

Q35.

Which cell structure maintains osmotic balance in Amoeba?

  • A Mitochondria
  • B Contractile vacuole
  • C Ribosome
  • D Nucleus
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Contractile vacuole

Why: Contractile vacuole in Amoeba and other protists pumps out excess water, maintaining osmotic balance.

Q36.

Ribosomes inside mitochondria are:

  • A 80S
  • B 70S
  • C 60S
  • D 50S
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. 70S

Why: Mitochondrial ribosomes are 70S (like prokaryotes), supporting the endosymbiont theory of their origin.

Q37.

Gap junctions in animal cells are analogous to plant:

  • A Tight junctions
  • B Plasmodesmata
  • C Cell walls
  • D Desmosomes
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Plasmodesmata

Why: Gap junctions (animal) and plasmodesmata (plant) are both channels allowing direct cytoplasmic communication between adjacent cells.

Q38.

The inner membrane of mitochondria is folded into:

  • A Grana
  • B Stroma
  • C Cristae
  • D Lumen
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Cristae

Why: The inner mitochondrial membrane folds into cristae, greatly increasing surface area for ATP synthesis.

Q39.

Which substance is NOT found in the cell membrane?

  • A Cholesterol
  • B Proteins
  • C Phospholipids
  • D Cellulose
Show answer & explanation

Answer: D. Cellulose

Why: Cellulose is found in plant cell walls, not in the cell membrane. Membranes contain phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol.

Q40.

Pinocytosis differs from phagocytosis in that:

  • A It uses ATP to power vesicle formation
  • B It involves engulfing liquids, not solids
  • C It occurs mainly in plant and fungal cells
  • D It moves material outward, out of the cell
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. It involves engulfing liquids, not solids

Why: Pinocytosis = cell drinking (liquid engulfed). Phagocytosis = cell eating (solid particles engulfed). Both are endocytosis.

Hard — 20 questions

Q41.

The Z-scheme in photosynthesis describes:

  • A The sequential transfer of electrons along the mitochondrial respiratory chain
  • B Cyclic electron flow restricted entirely to Photosystem I alone
  • C Non-cyclic electron transport in light reactions
  • D The semi-conservative copying of the genome prior to cell division
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Non-cyclic electron transport in light reactions

Why: Z-scheme: electrons from water (via PS II) and from PS I flow in a Z-shaped path, generating ATP and NADPH in non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Q42.

Transmembrane proteins in the fluid mosaic model span:

  • A Only the outer leaflet
  • B Only the inner leaflet
  • C Both phospholipid layers completely
  • D Between the cell wall and membrane
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Both phospholipid layers completely

Why: Integral (transmembrane) proteins span the entire phospholipid bilayer, with portions exposed on both sides.

Q43.

KDEL sequence on a protein indicates it should be:

  • A Secreted out of cell
  • B Targeted to lysosomes
  • C Retained in the ER lumen
  • D Sent to mitochondria
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Retained in the ER lumen

Why: KDEL (Lys-Asp-Glu-Leu) is the ER retention signal. Proteins with KDEL are retrieved from the Golgi and retained in the ER.

Q44.

Connexons are protein units that form:

  • A Tight junctions
  • B Gap junctions
  • C Plasmodesmata
  • D Nuclear pores
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Gap junctions

Why: Gap junctions consist of connexons (hemichannels). Two cells each contribute a connexon; together they form a channel for ion/molecule transfer.

Q45.

The signal hypothesis (Blobel) explains how:

  • A Nuclear proteins enter the nucleus through pores
  • B Secretory proteins are directed to the rough ER
  • C Mitochondrial proteins are imported through TOM complexes
  • D All organelle proteins are targeted using one universal signal
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Secretory proteins are directed to the rough ER

Why: Blobel's signal hypothesis: N-terminal signal sequence on secretory proteins directs ribosomes to rough ER; protein enters the ER lumen.

Q46.

Autophagy is the process of:

  • A Equal partitioning of cytoplasm and organelles between two daughter cells
  • B Self-digestion of organelles by lysosomes
  • C Unwinding and copying of the genome ahead of mitotic division
  • D Secretion of newly synthesized proteins out of the cell via vesicle fusion
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Self-digestion of organelles by lysosomes

Why: Autophagy: worn-out organelles or cytoplasmic components are enclosed in autophagosomes, then fused with lysosomes for degradation.

Q47.

The voltage across cell membrane (resting potential) is maintained by:

  • A ATP hydrolysis alone, independent of any ion movement across the membrane
  • B Na+/K+ ATPase pump and selective ion permeability
  • C Voltage-gated calcium channels opening transiently during depolarization
  • D Passive protein channels alone, without any active pumping mechanism
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Na+/K+ ATPase pump and selective ion permeability

Why: Resting potential (-70 mV in neurons) is maintained by Na+/K+ ATPase pump (active) plus the much higher permeability of K+ than Na+ (passive).

Q48.

Matrix of the mitochondria contains:

  • A The cytochrome electron transport chain embedded along the cristae membrane
  • B Krebs cycle enzymes, mitochondrial DNA, and ribosomes
  • C Free water with no dissolved enzymes or genetic material whatsoever
  • D ATP synthase complexes alone, projecting from the inner membrane surface
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Krebs cycle enzymes, mitochondrial DNA, and ribosomes

Why: Mitochondrial matrix contains Krebs cycle enzymes, circular mitochondrial DNA, 70S ribosomes, and other soluble components.

Q49.

Glycosylation of proteins occurs in the:

  • A Nucleus, where transcription factors are modified before translation
  • B Mitochondria, during oxidative phosphorylation of matrix proteins
  • C Rough ER and Golgi apparatus
  • D Ribosome, immediately as the polypeptide chain emerges
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Rough ER and Golgi apparatus

Why: N-linked glycosylation begins in the rough ER; O-linked glycosylation occurs in the Golgi. Both add carbohydrate groups to proteins.

Q50.

Which technique separates cell organelles by density?

  • A PCR, used to amplify specific DNA sequences
  • B Gel electrophoresis, separating molecules by charge and size
  • C Centrifugation (ultracentrifuge)
  • D Chromatography, separating molecules by their chemical properties
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Centrifugation (ultracentrifuge)

Why: Ultracentrifugation separates organelles by size and density. Different organelles pellet at different centrifuge speeds.

Q51.

Apoptosis differs from necrosis in that apoptosis:

  • A Triggers a strong local inflammatory response from surrounding tissue
  • B Occurs as sudden, uncontrolled cell death following membrane rupture
  • C Is programmed, orderly cell death without inflammation
  • D Spreads damage and destroys neighboring healthy tissue
Show answer & explanation

Answer: C. Is programmed, orderly cell death without inflammation

Why: Apoptosis = programmed cell death: orderly, no inflammation, DNA fragmented, cell pieces cleared by phagocytes. Necrosis is uncontrolled damage-caused death.

Q52.

The proton gradient across inner mitochondrial membrane drives:

  • A Replication of the circular mitochondrial genome within the matrix
  • B ATP synthesis by ATP synthase (chemiosmosis)
  • C Translation of mitochondrially-encoded proteins on matrix ribosomes
  • D Equal segregation of mitochondria between dividing daughter cells
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase (chemiosmosis)

Why: Electron transport chain pumps H+ across inner membrane. H+ flow back through ATP synthase (chemiosmosis) drives ATP production.

Q53.

Which protein is responsible for maintaining chromosome condensation during mitosis?

  • A Histone
  • B Condensin
  • C Tubulin
  • D Actin
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Condensin

Why: Condensin complex compacts chromosomes during mitosis. Cohesins hold sister chromatids together until anaphase.

Q54.

Which cellular structure is the site of the electron transport chain?

  • A Inner mitochondrial membrane
  • B Outer mitochondrial membrane
  • C Mitochondrial matrix
  • D Endoplasmic reticulum
Show answer & explanation

Answer: A. Inner mitochondrial membrane

Why: The electron transport chain complexes (I-IV) are embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. ATP synthase (Complex V) is also there.

Q55.

SDS-PAGE separates proteins by:

  • A Charge only
  • B Size (molecular weight)
  • C Isoelectric point
  • D Amino acid composition
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Size (molecular weight)

Why: SDS-PAGE: SDS denatures proteins and gives them uniform negative charge proportional to size. Proteins separate by size in polyacrylamide gel.

Q56.

Thylakoid membranes in chloroplasts are the site of:

  • A Carbon fixation occurring during the Calvin cycle stage
  • B Light reactions (photo-phosphorylation)
  • C Fatty acid synthesis occurring within the chloroplast stroma
  • D Amino acid synthesis occurring within the chloroplast stroma
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Light reactions (photo-phosphorylation)

Why: Thylakoid membranes contain photosystems I and II, electron transport chain, and ATP synthase: all light reaction components.

Q57.

Clathrin-coated vesicles are involved in:

  • A Exocytosis of secretory vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane
  • B Receptor-mediated endocytosis
  • C Engulfment and lysosomal digestion of the cell's own organelles
  • D Equal separation of duplicated chromosomes during mitotic division
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Receptor-mediated endocytosis

Why: Clathrin-coated pits and vesicles mediate receptor-mediated endocytosis (e.g., LDL uptake, transferrin internalization).

Q58.

The fluid mosaic model proposed that membrane lipids can:

  • A Flip rapidly and frequently between the inner and outer leaflets of the bilayer
  • B Move laterally within the bilayer (lateral diffusion) but rarely flip
  • C Remain permanently fixed in one position without any lateral movement
  • D Diffuse rapidly across the bilayer's hydrophobic core within milliseconds
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Move laterally within the bilayer (lateral diffusion) but rarely flip

Why: Phospholipids diffuse rapidly laterally within their leaflet but rarely flip (transverse diffusion/flip-flop). Proteins also move laterally.

Q59.

What is the function of the signal recognition particle (SRP)?

  • A Initiates unwinding of the DNA double helix at the origin of replication
  • B Directs ribosome-mRNA complex to rough ER
  • C Enzymatically cleaves the signal peptide once translocation is complete
  • D Catalyzes correct folding of nascent polypeptides within the ER lumen
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Directs ribosome-mRNA complex to rough ER

Why: SRP recognizes the signal sequence on a growing polypeptide and targets the ribosome-mRNA complex to the rough ER membrane.

Q60.

Voltage-gated ion channels open in response to:

  • A Concentration gradient
  • B Changes in membrane potential
  • C Ligand binding
  • D Temperature only
Show answer & explanation

Answer: B. Changes in membrane potential

Why: Voltage-gated channels (e.g., Na+ channels in neurons) open when membrane potential reaches a threshold (depolarization).