60 free MCQs on Reproductive Health with worked answers and explanations. Understand reproductive health, family planning, contraception methods, STIs, population control, and assisted reproductive technologies.
Take the timed Reproductive Health quiz →Below are 60 practice questions on Reproductive Health, sorted Easy → Hard. Tap “Show answer & explanation” under any question to check yourself. Want the full theory first? Read the Reproductive Health notes.
Contraceptive methods span a spectrum from temporary/natural to permanent/surgical; condoms stand out as the only method offering STI protection alongside contraception.
Q1.
Which organisation defined reproductive health as total well-being in all aspects of reproduction?
Answer: A. WHO
Why: WHO defined reproductive health as a total well-being - physical, emotional, behavioural and social - in all aspects of reproduction.
Q2.
India launched its national family planning programme in which year?
Answer: C. 1951
Why: India was the first country to launch a national family planning programme in 1951, making it a pioneer in population control.
Q3.
Lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is effective as a contraceptive for up to how many months after childbirth?
Answer: B. 6 months
Why: LAM is effective up to 6 months post-partum, but only when the mother is fully breastfeeding and has not resumed menstruation.
Q4.
Which bacterium causes gonorrhoea?
Answer: C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Why: Gonorrhoea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram-negative diplococcus transmitted through sexual contact.
Q5.
What does IUD stand for in the context of contraception?
Answer: A. Intra-uterine device
Why: IUD stands for Intra-Uterine Device. These are contraceptive devices placed inside the uterus by medical professionals.
Q6.
Saheli, the oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI Lucknow, is taken how frequently?
Answer: C. Once a week
Why: Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI Lucknow that is taken once a week, making it convenient to use.
Q7.
Which virus causes genital warts?
Answer: D. HPV
Why: Genital warts are caused by the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). Certain strains of HPV are also associated with cervical cancer.
Q8.
MTP stands for which procedure that has been legal in India since 1971?
Answer: B. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
Why: MTP stands for Medical Termination of Pregnancy. It was made legal in India under the MTP Act of 1971 to reduce unsafe abortions.
Q9.
Condoms are made of which material in most cases?
Answer: B. Latex
Why: Most male condoms are made of latex rubber. They act as barrier contraceptives and also provide protection against STIs including HIV.
Q10.
What is the natural contraceptive method based on avoiding intercourse during fertile days of the menstrual cycle called?
Answer: C. Periodic abstinence
Why: Periodic abstinence (also called the calendar or rhythm method) involves avoiding intercourse around ovulation time to prevent pregnancy.
Q11.
Which STI is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum?
Answer: B. Syphilis
Why: Syphilis is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum. It progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages if untreated.
Q12.
IVF stands for which assisted reproductive technology?
Answer: B. In vitro fertilisation
Why: IVF stands for In Vitro Fertilisation, where fertilisation takes place outside the body in a laboratory setting.
Q13.
The Lippes loop is an example of which type of IUD?
Answer: C. Non-medicated IUD
Why: The Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD made of polyethylene. It works by creating a hostile environment for sperm and preventing implantation.
Q14.
Which of the following is a barrier contraceptive method used by females?
Answer: C. Diaphragm
Why: The diaphragm is a female barrier contraceptive - a dome-shaped device placed over the cervix before intercourse to block sperm.
Q15.
Genital herpes is caused by which virus?
Answer: C. HSV-2
Why: Genital herpes is caused by Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 (HSV-2). It causes painful blisters and sores in the genital area.
Q16.
What does GIFT stand for in assisted reproductive technology?
Answer: A. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
Why: GIFT stands for Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer, where both the ovum and sperm are transferred into the fallopian tube for natural fertilisation to occur.
Q17.
Oral contraceptive pills primarily work by inhibiting which process?
Answer: C. Ovulation and implantation
Why: Combined oral contraceptive pills containing estrogen and progesterone inhibit both ovulation and implantation, providing highly effective contraception.
Q18.
Which act banned the use of amniocentesis for sex determination in India?
Answer: B. PCPNDT Act
Why: The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act bans the use of amniocentesis and other techniques for sex determination in India.
Q19.
Coitus interruptus refers to which natural contraceptive method?
Answer: B. Withdrawal of penis before ejaculation
Why: Coitus interruptus (withdrawal method) involves withdrawing the penis from the vagina before ejaculation to prevent sperm from reaching the egg.
Q20.
Which disease is caused by HIV and weakens the immune system?
Answer: D. AIDS
Why: AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) which destroys CD4+ T cells, weakening the immune system.
Q21.
In IVF-ET, at which cell stage is the embryo typically transferred into the uterus?
Answer: C. 8-cell stage
Why: In IVF-ET, the embryo is typically transferred into the uterus at the 8-cell stage. Earlier or later transfers are also performed but 8-cell is standard.
Q22.
ICSI involves injecting which into the ovum to achieve fertilisation?
Answer: B. A single sperm
Why: ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) involves injecting a single sperm directly into the cytoplasm of an ovum, used when sperm count or motility is very low.
Q23.
ZIFT stands for which assisted reproductive technique where the embryo is transferred into the fallopian tube?
Answer: A. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer
Why: ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) involves transferring the fertilised zygote into the fallopian tube instead of the uterus, mimicking natural progression.
Q24.
The copper-releasing IUD CuT works by which mechanism among others?
Answer: B. Suppressing sperm motility and increasing phagocytosis of sperm
Why: Copper IUDs like CuT release copper ions that suppress sperm motility and increase phagocytosis of sperm, making the uterine environment hostile to fertilisation.
Q25.
Emergency contraceptive pills must be taken within how many hours of unprotected intercourse?
Answer: C. 72 hours
Why: Emergency contraceptive pills (morning-after pills) must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. They prevent implantation by using high doses of estrogen or progesterone.
Q26.
Norplant is a subdermal implant contraceptive that releases which hormone?
Answer: C. Levonorgestrel
Why: Norplant consists of small rods implanted under the skin that slowly release levonorgestrel (a progestin), providing contraception for up to 5 years.
Q27.
MTP is generally considered safe only up to which week of pregnancy without special approval?
Answer: C. 12 weeks
Why: MTP is considered safe up to 12 weeks (first trimester) without special approval. Beyond 12 weeks up to 20 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required.
Q28.
Which STI is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoan parasite?
Answer: C. Trichomoniasis
Why: Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a flagellated protozoan. It is the most common curable STI worldwide.
Q29.
Progestasert and LNG-20 are examples of which category of IUDs?
Answer: C. Hormone-releasing IUDs
Why: Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone-releasing IUDs that release progesterone or levonorgestrel locally, providing contraception and reducing menstrual bleeding.
Q30.
DMPA (Depo-Provera) is administered by which route for contraception?
Answer: C. Injection
Why: DMPA (Depot Medroxyprogesterone Acetate), marketed as Depo-Provera, is given as an intramuscular injection every 3 months to prevent ovulation.
Q31.
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique used primarily to detect which type of abnormalities?
Answer: B. Chromosomal abnormalities
Why: Amniocentesis analyses fetal cells shed into the amniotic fluid to detect chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and other genetic disorders.
Q32.
Hepatitis B, which can be sexually transmitted, is caused by which type of pathogen?
Answer: C. Virus
Why: Hepatitis B is caused by the Hepatitis B Virus (HBV). It can be transmitted sexually, through blood, and from mother to child during birth.
Q33.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for which MTP may be legally performed in India?
Answer: C. Sex-selective abortion
Why: Sex-selective abortion is illegal in India under the PCPNDT Act. MTP is legally permitted for rape victims, failed contraception, fetal abnormalities, and risk to maternal health.
Q34.
In IUI (Intrauterine Insemination), semen from which source can be used?
Answer: C. Either the husband or a donor
Why: In IUI, semen can be obtained from the husband (AIH - Artificial Insemination Husband) or from a donor (AID - Artificial Insemination Donor) and introduced into the uterus.
Q35.
The female condom covers the internal walls of the vagina and is also called by which name?
Answer: B. Femidom
Why: The female condom is also known as Femidom. It is a loose-fitting polyurethane sheath inserted into the vagina before intercourse.
Q36.
Multiload 375 is an example of which type of IUD and what does 375 refer to?
Answer: C. Copper-releasing IUD; 375 sq mm copper surface area
Why: Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD. The number 375 refers to the surface area of copper (375 square millimetres) on the device, which determines its efficacy.
Q37.
Which of the following male factors can cause infertility?
Answer: D. Low sperm count, abnormal morphology, or poor motility
Why: Male infertility can result from low sperm count (oligospermia), absence of sperm (azoospermia), poor sperm motility, or abnormal sperm morphology - any or all of these factors.
Q38.
In surrogacy, who carries the embryo to term?
Answer: B. A surrogate mother
Why: In surrogacy, the embryo formed by IVF is transferred into a surrogate mother uterus. She carries and delivers the baby on behalf of the intended parents.
Q39.
Chlamydia, a common STI, is caused by which organism?
Answer: A. Chlamydia trachomatis (bacterium)
Why: Chlamydia is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, an obligate intracellular bacterium. It is one of the most common STIs and is often asymptomatic.
Q40.
Which IUD among the following is non-medicated and works purely by physical means?
Answer: C. Lippes loop
Why: The Lippes loop is a non-medicated inert IUD made of polyethylene. It creates a hostile environment in the uterus, stimulating a mild inflammatory response that prevents implantation.
Q41.
GIFT differs from ZIFT in what fundamental way regarding the stage of development transferred into the fallopian tube?
Answer: B. GIFT transfers gametes (ovum and sperm); ZIFT transfers the zygote
Why: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) transfers unfertilised gametes (ovum and sperm) into the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilisation, whereas ZIFT transfers the already fertilised zygote into the fallopian tube.
Q42.
Copper IUDs suppress fertility through which combination of mechanisms?
Answer: B. Increasing phagocytosis of sperm, suppressing sperm motility, and making uterus hostile to implantation
Why: Copper IUDs work by releasing copper ions that increase phagocytosis of sperm by macrophages, suppress sperm motility, and create a hostile uterine environment that inhibits implantation.
Q43.
The PCPNDT Act was enacted to address misuse of which technique for illegal sex determination?
Answer: A. Amniocentesis and ultrasonography
Why: The Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act was enacted to ban the misuse of amniocentesis and ultrasonography for prenatal sex determination, which was leading to female feticide.
Q44.
Saheli differs from conventional oral contraceptive pills in which two important ways?
Answer: B. It is non-steroidal (centchroman) and taken once a week
Why: Saheli (centchroman/ormeloxifene) is unique because it is a non-steroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) developed by CDRI Lucknow, taken once a week - unlike conventional pills that are steroidal and taken daily.
Q45.
In the context of population growth, the doubling time of human population shortened from 200 years (to reach 2 billion) to approximately how many years to add the next billion after 5 billion?
Answer: C. 13 years
Why: The human population reached 5 billion in 1987 and 6 billion in 2000 - a doubling-time compression showing that adding the next billion took only about 13 years, demonstrating accelerating population growth.
Q46.
Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between crude birth rate, crude death rate, and population growth rate?
Answer: C. Growth rate = CBR minus CDR (per 1000 population)
Why: The natural population growth rate is calculated as Crude Birth Rate (CBR) minus Crude Death Rate (CDR) per 1000 population. Positive values indicate population increase.
Q47.
Why is the MTP Act considered to have both benefits and potential for misuse in the Indian context?
Answer: B. It prevents unsafe abortions but is misused for sex-selective abortions leading to female feticide
Why: The MTP Act prevents unsafe back-alley abortions and reduces maternal mortality. However, it has been misused for sex-selective abortions to terminate female fetuses, leading to skewed sex ratios, which is why the PCPNDT Act was enacted.
Q48.
In ART, IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) is used when the embryo from IVF is transferred into the uterus, but ZIFT is used when it is transferred into which structure?
Answer: C. Fallopian tube
Why: In ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer), the zygote or early embryo obtained from IVF is transferred into the fallopian tube, allowing it to travel naturally to the uterus for implantation.
Q49.
A patient with azoospermia wanting to father a biological child would most likely benefit from which ART technique?
Answer: B. ICSI with surgically retrieved sperm from testes
Why: Azoospermia (absence of sperm in ejaculate) can be treated by surgically extracting sperm directly from the testes (TESA/PESA), followed by ICSI where the single retrieved sperm is injected directly into the ovum.
Q50.
The hormone-releasing IUD LNG-20 releases which hormone and what is its primary additional benefit over non-medicated IUDs?
Answer: B. Levonorgestrel; reduces menstrual blood loss significantly
Why: LNG-20 releases levonorgestrel locally. Besides contraception, a major benefit is significant reduction in menstrual blood loss (up to 90%), making it therapeutic for menorrhagia and endometriosis.
Q51.
Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of steps in a standard IVF-ET procedure?
Answer: A. Ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval, fertilisation in lab, embryo culture, embryo transfer
Why: IVF-ET follows: ovarian hyperstimulation with gonadotropins, egg retrieval by transvaginal ultrasound guidance, in vitro fertilisation, embryo culture to 8-cell stage, then embryo transfer into uterus.
Q52.
Preimplantation Genetic Diagnosis (PGD) is performed in conjunction with which ART to screen embryos before transfer?
Answer: C. IVF-ET
Why: PGD is performed on embryos created by IVF before their transfer into the uterus. A single cell is biopsied from the 8-cell embryo for genetic analysis to detect chromosomal or single-gene disorders.
Q53.
In the context of HIV transmission, which of the following represents the correct risk hierarchy from highest to lowest transmission probability per exposure?
Answer: C. Blood transfusion > needle sharing > mother to child > sexual intercourse
Why: HIV transmission probability per exposure: blood transfusion (90-95%) is highest, followed by needle sharing (0.67%), then mother-to-child transmission (15-45%), and sexual intercourse (0.1-1% depending on type).
Q54.
Why does copper in CuT IUDs act as a spermicide, from a biochemical perspective?
Answer: B. Copper ions interfere with sperm enzymes (acrosin, adenyl cyclase), impairing motility and capacitation
Why: Copper ions (Cu2+) interfere with key sperm enzymes including acrosin and adenyl cyclase, impair calcium channel function needed for motility, reduce ATP production, and inhibit capacitation, rendering sperm unable to fertilise.
Q55.
India total fertility rate (TFR) dropped below the replacement level of 2.1 for the first time according to NFHS-5 (2019-21). What does a TFR below replacement level indicate about future population trends?
Answer: B. Population will continue growing for decades due to population momentum before stabilising
Why: Even when TFR drops below replacement level, population continues to grow for decades due to population momentum - the large proportion of young people who will still have children. India population is projected to peak around 2064.
Q56.
Spermicidal creams and jellies used with barrier methods work by which mechanism?
Answer: B. Chemically immobilising or killing sperm on contact
Why: Spermicides contain chemicals like nonoxynol-9 that chemically immobilise or kill sperm by disrupting their cell membranes. They are most effective when used in combination with barrier methods like diaphragms.
Q57.
Which of the following female conditions can lead to infertility due to blocked or damaged fallopian tubes?
Answer: A. Endometriosis and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) from STIs
Why: Endometriosis (ectopic endometrial tissue causing adhesions) and PID (often from untreated gonorrhoea or chlamydia) are major causes of tubal factor infertility due to scarring and blockage of fallopian tubes.
Q58.
The World Population Day is observed on July 11 every year. This date was chosen because world population reached which milestone approximately on July 11, 1987?
Answer: B. 5 billion
Why: World Population Day is observed on July 11 to mark the approximate date in 1987 when the world population reached 5 billion (the Day of Five Billion). It raises awareness about population-related issues.
Q59.
In cases where a woman has non-functional ovaries but a normal uterus, which ART approach would allow her to carry a pregnancy?
Answer: B. IVF using donor eggs fertilised with husband sperm, transferred to her uterus
Why: If a woman cannot produce viable eggs (non-functional ovaries), donor eggs can be retrieved, fertilised in vitro with the husband sperm using IVF, and the resulting embryo transferred into her hormonally prepared uterus.
Q60.
The success rate of IVF per cycle in most advanced centres globally is approximately in which range, making it important for patients to understand realistic expectations?
Answer: C. 20-40% per cycle
Why: The clinical pregnancy rate per IVF cycle is typically 20-40% in advanced centres, varying with maternal age (higher in younger women). This is why multiple cycles are often needed, and patients must have realistic expectations.